>This e-mail along with the other topic e-mail has me thinking. Always
>dangerous for questions(smile). Anyway, the two modes discussed mixolydian
>and dorian are used for melody focused tunes. These modes are older than the
>standard scale. Right? However, the standard scale has become the framework
>to "note" the tunes. It is THE famiIlar teaching mode. Right?
>Originally no written material, so the standard scale was superimposed on the
>oral tradition of the music? However, a more musically correct form, of the
>written version would be the mixolydian or dorian modes. Is that what people
Not quite. I think that it's not that those modes are older than the (modes
that are) standard scales. It's not that musical notation has overturned
the modes -- notation is no less capable of handling them than it is of
handling the standard scales. They're all just notes after all -- pitches
that last for a given time. I suggest that your inductive reasoning is
verging on a conspiracy theory of change iin musical tastes <g>.
Insanity is hereditary ...
You get it from your kids.