>Jesus may indeed have spoken Greek as well as Latin. Greek was the
>international diplomatic language of the day, and most educated
>people spoke it.
Quite possibly. However, it would be surprising if Jesus had chosen
to communicate in Greek to any of his audiences - for whom Aramaic
was their natural tongue. Aramaic had replaced Hebrew as the language
of the Jews from the time of the exile (c605 BC), and remained so
until well after the rise of Islam (c700 AD). Consequently, in Jesus'
time it would heve been used for everyday parlance by everyone from
the Sanhedrin to the lowliest peasant.
Aramaic was also the official language of the Persian empire, and had
been so since the time of Darius I (c. 558-486 BC). It would
therefore have been the natural tongue of the Magi.