Michael Newton said that:
"It is well known that people who speak Gaelic play their instrumental music
more accurately and authentically, because the music is based on and comes out
of the oral tradition."
Michael, could you clarify what you mean by "their music" and "more
accurately?" I'm a little fuzzy on the concepts here. The rest of your
argument seems to make sense though.
Of course, (to change the tone of the discussion completely), there is room
for more than one "dominant culture" in the realm of "Western culture." My
argument, I see now, is based primarily on substituting a Celtic culture for
the real world British one. (Should I call that real world culture Norman, or
Anglicized, or what?) This, of course, would yield different results (which
should be more like our own) than would having a Celtic Empire which extended
through all of Europe.
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