Am I to infer by your statements that Celtic tribes are unique in that
they have certain characteristics through out history? That the
collective consciousness of the Celtic racial makeup has
predisposed them to persecution for over 2500 years? Are you
saying that the Celts are so different that any other group that meets
them is predisposed to eliminating them from the face of the earth?
Are you saying that you can define the Celtic racial makeup so
accurately that you can say what is a Celtic behavioristic is versus
say an African-American characteristic?
If that is true, could you define other racial characteristics for me as
well, such as some African ethnic groups, or even the African
American? Perhaps you have stumbled upon something big here.
Don't get me wrong. I would be the first to say different cultures have
their own values and morals. It may be acceptable for a man to beat
his wife in one culture, while in others it is not. Crude example, I
However, I feel you have neglected one small item in this elaborate
theory of Celtic genicide. That is TIME.
Cultures change in the process of time.
The Celts that sacked home in the bc period were much different than
the Celts in 1200 ad. For one thing, they had been Christianized.
Celts did not burn English soldiers for human sacrifice as they did
captured Roman soldiers.
Also, there were changes and in fighting among the Celts even
before JC took up the matter.
According to the recently published book *Prehistoric England*
(author, other details to be sent later) many of the Celts just before the
Roman invasion by JC, were heavily involved with trade with Rome.
That is at least what the archeological evidence is pointing to. In fact,
the books author, looking at the sudden resurgence of the hill forts at
the time of the Roman invasion of Britian, suggests that a political
faction (possibly the Druids) called for a break off of Rome. This is
particularly persuading considering the general migration from the hill
forts to coastal towns that had been taken place just prior to the
Roman invasion and JC's own writings in that he described his
victories by the number of these forts he had taken.
Yet, WHY was this migration to coastal towns taking place?
Because of increased trade and commerce. Trade and commerce
with who? The Romans of course. Were these Celtic traders traitors?
Even the Romans changed in this time. Rome was very much
different in social customs and law in 300ad than say 44 bc.