On 17 Oct 2014 at 6:51, Neil McLeod wrote:
> But why accusative? That's not grammatically regular is it? Or is it
> just that the scribe felt that these groups were the 'object' of the
> praising (subconsciously reconverting the nominalisation in the verbal
> noun construction to its underlying verbal form)?
Yes, you are right (it is not grammatically regular), and yes, your
explanation sounds very plausible (i.e. that the scribe turned the
phrase into a verbal construction),