On Mi, 4.03.2009, 17:43, Peadar wrote:
> Hamp (Eriú 1988 p 194) suggests that feamain (seaweed) may not be a
> derivative of feam but the two may be etymologically distinct having
> undergone 'formal contamination through phonetic convergence and semantic
> feature overlap.' Does your etymology applies to both?
In contrast to Hamp I think that OIr. "femm" and "femuin" are just
different case-forms of the same word. I started off from the original
meaning "sea-weed". I did not consider then that "penis" might have been
the original meaning. This made and makes no real difference to what I
wanted to argue.
BTW, since footnote 6 is not very long, I might just as well reproduce it
"Another example may be found in Old Irish femm, femmain 'some kind of
edible sea-weed', its derivative femnach 'sea-weed or edible water-weed',
OBr. gueimmonou, gumouo 'sea-weeds', ModBr. goumon 'sea-weed', Cymr.
gwymon, gwmon, gwimon, Corn. gumman, gubman 'id.' < CC *wimmon-, if the
word goes back either to PC *wip-smon- 'swayer' (to *weyp 'in
schwingende/zitternde Bewegung geraten' LIV 612) or *wis-mon-
'flourishing' (to *weys 'sprießen, gedeihen' LIV 613). A similar analysis
seems to be intended by SCHRIJVER 1995, 154. Other etymologies can be
found in VGK i, 87 and 93; THURNEYSEN 1918, 67; O’RAHILLY 1942, 162-163;
QUENTEL 1960, 550-551 and DE BERNARDO STEMPEL 1987, 61102 and 1999, 134
and 139. About sea-weed in Celtic culture generally see NYBERG/AR GALL
1996. (Add.: I note, that Eric HAMP (1979 and 1988) proposed a similar
explanation for these words as I.)"