> And from a reader review at Amazon.com :
>> He pays as much attention to history as to linguistics, and
>> presents evidence that large numbers of Celts were not
>> exterminated by the small numbers of Vikings who invaded and
>> eventually settled in the northern and eastern part of England,
>> the Danelaw.
Has anyone ever suggested that "Vikings" had been busily
exterminating "Celts" in eastern England, as this Amazon reviewer
seems to have been imagining? :)
>> He demonstrates that English (unlike every other Germanic
>> language) has grammatical features in common with Celtic
>> languages--for instance, the "meaningless do" ("Do we eat
>> apples?") and using gerunds (like "using" in "I'm using a gerund")
>> as a normal present tense.
And isn't the form "using" in the phrase "I'm using a gerund"
actually a present participle? (OK, it has been argued that there is
a fine and perhaps blurry line between present participles and
gerunds in English, but still .....)
Carl Edlund Anderson