Would it be OK to translate something like a genealogy that is in a notational style into a narrative one ? I would garner that these notational forms were used as scripts for reading aloud - especially to nobly born sons during their education. They would have been fleshed out when they were read. They do contain much important narrative material that the redactors wanted to be sure was imparted.
Because these documents were important regarding rights to land and kingship positions I'm sure they were read aloud often. Perhaps this is precisely why they are in a shorthand. they had to be reproduced a great number of times. I doubt that they simply sat on church shelves to be consulted during disputes. Certainly that is where the master copies were kept and I think this explains many of the attacks on churches and monasteries. If you want to take someones lands then you have to change the deeds. In Ireland the deeds were the genealogies. if you are going to have to fight your way into the scriptorium then you might as well take a few cows while you are there to offer to the widows.
Patrick Brown <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
From: "Elliott Lash"
> --- Steven Lehan wrote:
> > Also: what exactly does ".i." stand for in the
> > genealogies ?
> It stands for 'id est' (that is: i.e.). (that
> sentence is really ridiculous if you think about it...
> i just said the same thing three times).
> Anyway, .i. is always used for 'i.e.'
I find a good way to translate '.i.' in a narrative context is often as a
colon. To take an example of a common formula from a text I'm working on at
the moment, 'Cath Leitrech Ruibhe' opens 'Aird-rig rogabastair forlamus for
Eirind .i. Fachtna Fathach." I translate this as "A high king took power
over Ireland: Fachtna Fathach."
This genealogical example, though, isn't narrative, it's in more of a
notational style, so I'd be inclined to translate it as "i.e." (I'd also
translate 'idem' as "=": "Eogan Mor had only one son, i.e. Fiachu Mullethan
= Fiachu Fer-da-liach").
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