Judyta Aleksandra Szacillo wrote:
> 'In illo enim loco quedam petra habetur, super quam [St ┴ed] sedens
> (...) ad celestia raptus est.'
> My problem with this sentence is that I would like to understand why
> there is a form of the verb 'habere' (to have) instead of 'esse' (to
> be), when the context and the meaning are quite clear. May it have
> been influenced by OI in any way? The text is supposed to have been
> written circa 800 AD.
I can't think of an Irish explanation ( after all, Irish has no word
for "have"), but instead it reminds me of Romance, e.g. French "il y
a" "there is" < *ille ibi habet "it has there".