Could the writer have meant to convey the meaning 'they have a rock
in that place' (as it were 'tá carraig acu san áit sin')?
On 15 Jan 2008, at 02:41, scríobh Judyta Aleksandra Szacillo:
> Dear all,
> First I would like to say thank you for letting me join the list -
> and welcome!
> I am an almost complete dilettante in Old Irish so that I am sorry
> I am not
> able to help with any of your enquiries (I was receiving them for a
> of months, i.e. since I registered on the list).
> I'm working on Latin sources and they trouble me sometimes with
> strange uses
> of words or vocabulary unknown to me (and there's only the first
> volume of
> the Dictionary of Celtic Latin published up to now).
> OK, enough for introduction, now here's the question. I have a
> simple sentence:
> 'In illo enim loco quedam petra habetur, super quam [St Áed] sedens
> (...) ad
> celestia raptus est.'
> ('In that place there is a certain rock, on which sitting (...) he
> was swept
> along to the heven.')
> My problem with this sentence is that I would like to understand
> why there
> is a form of the verb 'habere' (to have) instead of 'esse' (to
> be), when
> the context and the meaning are quite clear. May it have been
> influenced by
> OI in any way? The text is supposed to have been written circa 800 AD.
> Many thanks in advance
> Judyta Szacillo
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Marion Gunn * EGTeo (Estab.1991)
27 Páirc an Fhéithlinn, Baile an
Bhóthair, Co. Átha Cliath, Éire.
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