>> The verb survived intact into EMI as "luaidh", and I guess "laoi"
>> could be a shortened or phonetic spelling of it.
> I'm not sure I'm keeping up with you here. I think you saying that the
> EMI form of the conjunct perfect should be 'luaidh'. Yes?
I don't think EMI really has conjunct forms. "Luaidh" is just
the verb, and verbal particles would indicate whether it is
independent or dependent. There's a lot about EMI I don't know!
> On the basis of the deuterotonic forms for as-luí, I thought the older
> form of the conjunct perfect of 'luïd' would be something like
> '-luí/laí/lói' and that '-laoi' here was a later representation of this.
> (Cf DIL L 239.29-34.)
I'm satisfied that explains the author's familiarity with "laoi"
and use of it here. Thanks!