Lughaidh Ó hEacháin wrote:
> which is the pronoun that became this -it/-id ending? Is
> it the neutral one, ed ? Thurneysen says this: "this may have been
> originated in the 3pl, through assimilation of the pronoun to the
> personal ending". Does it mean that the -it (object pronoun at the
> first place) comes from a neutral pronoun or from the 3pl personal
> ending (-at/-it in Old Irish); Because the 3pl absolute pronoun isn't
> anything with -it but (h)é...
The 3rd sg. masculine/neutral suffixed pronoun is "-i".
E.g. "they love" = "carait"; for "they love him/it" we would expect
*cartai, but for some reason this actually appears as "cartait".
Standard doctrine has it that the final "t" is due to influence from
the 3rd pl. verbal ending "-(a)it". Thus we would have here a mixture
of pronominal and verbal morphology.
From the 3rd pl. the new 3rd sg. masc./neut. suffixed pronoun "-it"
spread to the 1st pl., e.g. "guidmit" "we ask it". Here the form "-
it" helps to avoid ambiguity, because the expected 1st pl. + 3rd sg.
neut. pronoun, i.e. "guidmi" + "-i" would have yielded... "guidmi"
which would have looked exactly like the non-suffixed form.
"-it" also spread to the 1st sg. future in "-a", e.g. "proimfea" "I
will try" --> "proimfit" "I will try it".