Hi David, Liz, List,
>>> a) Biit ann tra co cenn m-bliadna. "Manotdfuil ni
>>> tra isin sid," ol Ailill, "a Nero, co tucco ass."
>>> a1) Biid ... tra om. ... Manadfuil ... erc cotuca as.
>> I don't know where the 'om' in (a1) came from. I can't make it fit in.
> No idea.
om = ám (mod. ámh) ???
>> 'Manotdfuil/Manadfuil' looked like 'ma' (if) plus the particle
>> 'no' which is used to infix the object pronoun 't' (you)
> ... the "d" in this case is not the same "d" that is added to
> "má" before indicative verbs, but it is - I think - the infixed
> neuter pronoun. I'd write "má nod·f*il ní..."
> But also note that the possessor is not expressed in this sentence.
> Ailill doesn't actually say "if YOU have anything".
Why couldn't this "manotdfuil/manadfuil" represent "má not·f*il"
with the infixed 2nd sg. pronoun? The base form of the idiom is
"no-t·tá = to-you is = you have". But ·fil rather than ·tá is
the form of the substantive verb that normally follows "má" in OI
(at least according to DIL M 2.49, if I read it correctly). If
that works, we have Ailill expressing the whole idea: "má not·f*il
ni = if you have anything".