> >a) Biit ann tra co cenn m-bliadna. "Manotdfuil ni
> > tra isin sid," ol Ailill, "a Nero, co tucco ass."
> >a1) Biid ... tra om. ... Manadfuil ... erc cotuca as.
> Bíid and trá co cenn mbliadnae. "Manot·f*uil ní trá isint s*íd," ol
> Ailill, "a Nerai, eirc co·tuccae ass."
> I thought 'biit/biid' was the consuetudinal present 3rd singular of the
> substantive verb, apparently equivalent to 'bíonn' in Modern Irish.
Yes, it is. Given that a) has "biit" and that spellings like "biid" in a1) are always suspect of showing ModIr. orthographic
influence, I would rather tend to write "biit" "they are". Since the verb is a hiatus verb, it should be written in our
normalisation without fada.
> I don't know where the 'om' in (a1) came from. I can't make it fit in.
> I debated whether to write 'cenn' or 'cend.'
"cenn" is correct classical OIr.
I thought that
> 'Manotdfuil/Manadfuil' looked like 'ma' (if) plus the
> particle 'no' which is used to infix the object pronoun 't' (you)
> But I'm not sure that I've interpreted this verb correctly. 'Ma' also
> infixes a 'd' which is not an object pronoun before indicative verbs
> that are not the copula (see DIL M 2.29-30). This 'd' is also
> preceded by the particle 'no' in the examples.
> So the verb could be
> 'manod·fuil' and in that case I would translate the phrase as 'if
> there is anything in the fairy mound'.
I think that's correct. Only thing to observe is that "má" is an independent word which does not belong to the verbal
complex, and that the "d" in this case is not the same "d" that is added to "má" before indicative verbs, but it is - I think -
the infixed neuter pronoun. I'd write "má nod·f*il ní..."
But also note that the possessor is not expressed in this sentence. Ailill doesn't actually say "if YOU have anything".
> 'Fuil' has a number of spellings in the dictionary,
> including 'fil/file/fail/feil/fuil.) I kept the one in the sources,
> but I don't know which one would be more common in this situation.
OIr. would be "fil".