>Just a quick question to clarify something I think I know but I'm not sure
>Do two fonts of the same face, one a PostScript Type 1 font and one a
>TrueType font, have the same *exact* font metrics (character width,
>standard kerning, etc.) or is there a difference between them?
>I first noticed some years ago that when I opened a Word file on my Mac
>with Type 1 Times, the line breaks changed from the same Word file on a PC
>with TrueType Times. Same version of Word. Only difference was the font
>Same or different? General rule? Specific differences? Controlled by the
>program that uses the font?
It could have been some simple - like kerning activated for one file
and not for the other.
OTOH I wouldn't argue with William's explanation.