At 20/9/2001 16:22 -0400, Michael Brady wrote:
>Do two fonts of the same face, one a PostScript Type 1 font and one a
>TrueType font, have the same *exact* font metrics (character width,
>standard kerning, etc.) or is there a difference between them?
>I first noticed some years ago that when I opened a Word file on my Mac
>with Type 1 Times, the line breaks changed from the same Word file on a PC
>with TrueType Times. Same version of Word. Only difference was the font
>Same or different? General rule? Specific differences? Controlled by the
>program that uses the font?
I don't know whether the trouble is in the exact shape of the characters,
in kerning differences, or where, but this effect has been widely reported
by editors and proof-readers. Changes between PC and Mac versions of
allegedly the same font have also been reported.
David Ibbetson * 133 Wilton Street * Unit 506 * Toronto M5A 4A4
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