From: David Stifter <[log in to unmask]>
>Incidentally, in the Introduction to Senchas Már the passing of the
>right to give judgments from the poets to legal specialists is
>directly linked to and justified by the events of Immacallam in dá
>Thúarad. The relevant passage has been cited by me at:
I'd missed that! Nice connection.
>IMHO, when interpreting Immacallad, we should keep in mind the
>sentiment conveyed by the passage in Senchas Már, as an important
>(the only one?) contemporary testimony to the story. The attitude of
>the nobles of the Ulaid towards the dialogue of the two sages is a
>basically negative one: they simply did not understand, what the two
>were talking about. Possibly Immacallam is just that: a deliberate
>attempt at obscurism to convey the impression of pure
>unintelligeability, perhaps with the aim of satirising professional
>poets of the highest order.
Which reminds me, I keep meaning to ask, for whom was the Immacallam
written? Who would have read it?