First I would like to say thank you for letting me join the list - and welcome!
I am an almost complete dilettante in Old Irish so that I am sorry I am not
able to help with any of your enquiries (I was receiving them for a couple
of months, i.e. since I registered on the list).
I'm working on Latin sources and they trouble me sometimes with strange uses
of words or vocabulary unknown to me (and there's only the first volume of
the Dictionary of Celtic Latin published up to now).
OK, enough for introduction, now here's the question. I have a simple sentence:
'In illo enim loco quedam petra habetur, super quam [St ┴ed] sedens (...) ad
celestia raptus est.'
('In that place there is a certain rock, on which sitting (...) he was swept
along to the heven.')
My problem with this sentence is that I would like to understand why there
is a form of the verb 'habere' (to have) instead of 'esse' (to be), when
the context and the meaning are quite clear. May it have been influenced by
OI in any way? The text is supposed to have been written circa 800 AD.
Many thanks in advance